Measles Outbreak in a Texas Low Vax County

A convergence of several things. In the 1930's widespread use of anti-biotics began to happen allowing doctors to treat secondary infections (pneumonia) developed following the initial measles infection. The second thing that happened was the public health officials were required to report all deaths from Measles starting in 1912. However, widespread developed road systems and use of cars experiences explosive growth in the 1930s and 1940s, enable much better communication, access to health care (more documented cases = lower death rate) and access to treatment.

 

Like vaccines, antibiotics were introduced after measles deaths were near zero …

 

Near zero? Yes. At zero? No. But before this last death in Texas, it had been a decade since the last measles death. Measles used to also cause blindness or deafness in a small number of kids. That's all been eradicated since the vaccine.

 

Yes, near zero PRIOR to vaccines. Therefore, vaccines could not have been the cause for the reduction in deaths. Also, rash does not cause deafness and blindness.

 

Zero < near zero. There were still deaths annually before the vaccine. Post vaccine, deaths have been rare. And only occur in unvaccinated.

Measles is also a leading cause of blindness in kids in 3rd world countries. Here's a scientific paper from 1983 explaining how measles causes vision issues.

This study is about post measles hearing loss.

So not only has deaths been reduced to currently 1 dead in a decade, vaccinations have all but eliminated measles caused blindness and deafness in the US.

 

To further make the point, between 1971 and 1975, there were 35.4 measles deaths per year. This was after the vaccine, but before it became mandatory. This equates to 354 deaths in a decade, versus again, our first death in a decade. And last I looked, 354 > 1.

 

I am astounded that intelligent people like yourself don’t see it. So I’ll post it again. The MASSIVE reduction of deaths PRIOR to vaccines merely reinforces the fact that there was never anything to vaccinate for …

 

This why no one takes you seriously and why VA continues to just toy with you. You had to (and continue to) use England data since the US data backed up the exact point VA was making about the effectiveness of the vaccine in the 1960s. Then when Oklahoma challenged you to show US data to back up your claim you could only find a random Twitter post with Massachusetts data.

Then you have the audacity to state that intelligent people can't see your point when you know full well you're making a disingenuous argument. Otherwise you wouldn't keep having to shift the goal posts to find data that backs up your ridiculous hypothesis.

 

Why can't you admit 354 > 1? 354 was the 10 year mortality rate in the yearly 1970s. 1 is the most recent measles morality rate over the last 10 years.

 

You mad, bro ? I never said I’m trying to take away your unicorn dander infusions. I predict this will bounce off too and you say I’m disingenuous …

 

Do you not see the MASSIVE reduction PRIOR to vaccines ? It’s hardly surprising that other factors were in play since there never was anything to vaccinate for, measles neither a virus nor contagious …

Measles – ViroLIEgy

 

There were many medical advances made post WWII that helped reduce measles deaths before the vaccine. But the decade before the vaccine became mandatory, the death rate was over 34 a year. This past 10 years, we've had only 1 death, of an unvaccinated kid.

Last I looked 1 death per every 10 years is much better than 34.5 a year. Do you not agree?

And what about long term health side effects like blindness and deafness. Measles is a leading cause of childhood deafness and blindness in developing countries with low vaccination rates. In developed countries with high vaccination rates? Unheard of. If it's not the vaccine, why a huge disparity?

 

Are you straining at a gnat and swallowing a camel ? Why the MASSIVE reduction deaths PRIOR if measles was a virus in search of a vaccine ?

Meantime, one child has died. Will we learn anything about any other factors that might have played into his/her death ? No, we will not. Fear is paramount and Pharma CEOs need to put food on the table.

And why will you not read the articles I’m posting ?

 

Why can't you admit 34.5 deaths annually year is worse, much worse than 1 death in 10 years?

If you want to understand the reduction in deaths from measles before the vaccine, look at antibiotics. Measles often lends itself to secondary bacterial infections. Antibiotics to treat these helps people fight two infections at once.

Regardless, the numbers don't lie. 354 > 1. And that's just mortality. The reduction is long term negative health effects like measles induced blindness or deafness is now even lower.

 

And now it’s being reported the child had pneumonia. But it’s spots that killed him.

Measles not a virus in search of a vaccine.

 

So sad. Can't admit 34 deaths annually year is much worse than 1 in 10 years.

 

And 34 deaths annually much lower than 5,300 deaths annually 1912-1916. Measles not a virus even if articles go unread.

 

More like laughing at you frantically searching for any US data to back up your absurd claims and the relief you must have felt to find a single state to let you continue to argue your non-sensical point.

 

But you don’t believe viruses even exist and that science is legitimate, so it’s impossible for anyone to have a conversation with you without a pop up book and a big box of crayons. Of course the crayons will have to be all white or you’ll cry about DEI.